Consider $f:A \to B$ and $g: B \to C$. If I know that both $f$ and $g$ are injective, then can I state that $$g \circ f:A \to C$$ is injective?
2026-03-27 18:08:22.1774634902
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Is the composition of two injective functions injective?
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Using "injective iff has a left inverse":
$f$ injective $\implies$ $\exists\tilde f:\ \tilde f\circ f = I_A$.
$g$ injective $\implies$ $\exists\tilde g:\ \tilde g\circ g = I_B$.
Now, the composition has left inverse, namely $\tilde f\circ \tilde g$: $$(\tilde f\circ\tilde g)\circ(g\circ f) = \tilde f\circ\tilde g\circ g\circ f = \tilde f\circ I_B\circ f = \tilde f\circ f = I_A.$$
Yes, $$f(a) = f(b) \iff a =b,$$ $$g(a) = g(b) \iff a =b,$$ so
$$g(f(a)) = g(f(b)) \implies f(a) = f(b) \implies a = b. $$