Is the following proof correct?-Finite Ring Theory

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Show that the following conditions are equivalent in $R=\mathbb Z_n$. Let $[x],[y] \in \mathbb Z_n$.

  1. $R[x]+R[y]=R$
  2. $\gcd(x,y)=1$.

$(1)\implies (2)$::

When $R=\mathbb Z_n$, then $R[x]=\langle [x]\rangle $ and $R[y]=\langle [y]\rangle $ where $\langle [x]\rangle, \langle [y]\rangle $ denote the ideal generated by $[x],[y]$ respectively.

Now $R[x]+R[y]=R \implies \langle [x]\rangle +\langle [y]\rangle =\mathbb Z_n$.

Since $[1]\in \mathbb Z_n$ so $[1]\in \langle [x]\rangle +\langle [y]\rangle$ which implies that there exists integers $m,k$ such that $m[x]+k[y]=1\implies mx+ky\equiv 1 \mod n\implies \gcd(x,y)=1$

$(2)\implies (1)$::

$\gcd(x,y)=1\implies mx+ky=1$ for some $m,k\in \mathbb Z$

$m[x]+k[y]=[1] \implies [1]\in Rx+Ry\implies R=Rx+Ry$.

Is the above proof correct? My professor always has a knack of cutting marks.

Can someone please go through the above proof and give some comments if there is anyting wrong and if I need to correct something ?

If someone can help, I will be grateful.

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The statement (2)$\implies$(1) is true and you proved it correctly.

The statement (1)$\implies$(2) is not true in general.

Indeed, you correctly show that $R[x]+R[y]=R$ implies $mx+ky\equiv1\pmod{n}$, for some integers $m$ and $k$, but this doesn't imply $\gcd(x,y)=1$.

For instance, with $n=15$, you have $R[7]+R[14]=R$, but certainly $\gcd(7,14)$ doesn't equal $1$.