Let $f:U\to \mathbb{R}^n$ be a $C^1$ map from a connected open set $U$ of $\mathbb{R}^k$ where $1\leq k \leq n$ into $\mathbb{R}^n$ such that :
- $f$ is an injective immersion,
- $f$ is an homeomorphism from $U$ onto its image $f(U)$.
Does this imply that $f(U)$ is an open set of $\mathbb{R}^n$ ?
if you simply include the x-axis into $R^2$ it seems to me that you get a counterexample.