If $\varphi : S \to T$ is a surjective semigroup homomorphism between semigroups and $G \subseteq T$ is a group, then is $\varphi^{-1}(G)$ also a group?
I know that this result holds if $S$ and $T$ are finite, as then I can find an idempotent element in $\varphi^{-1}(1_G)$ and everything follows from that. But I cannot prove it for infinite semigroups, nor can I find a counter-example.
Project $\Bbb{N}$ on $\{0,1\}=\Bbb{Z}/(2)$, sending evens to $0$ and odds to $1$. So, no, the inverse image of a group under a semigroup homomorphism need not be a group, even if it is a surjective monoid homomorphism.