I dont understand the last sentence of this:
Why is the leading term of $ax^2+bx+c=0$ the product of the leading terms of $q(x)$, $x-a_1$ and $x-a_2$?
Is it true that in general, for any polynomial $f(x)$, the leading term is the product of the leading terms of its factors?
Its from a paper about factoring polynomials: https://www.math.utah.edu/~wortman/1050-text-fp.pdf