I'm a bit confused about this theorem about irreducible Markov Chains:
If a Markov chain is irreducible, then all its states have the same period $d(i) := g.c.d.\{n > 0|P^n(i, i) > 0\}$.[source]
Let's suppose we have the following matrix which represents an irreducible Markov Chain:
\begin{equation} P = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 0 & 0.8 & 0.2\\ 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \end{equation} if we start from state 1, we can reach it again after two transitions: \begin{equation} 1\rightarrow 3 \rightarrow 1 \end{equation} but if we start from state 2, we can only reach it again after 4 transitions: \begin{equation} 2\rightarrow 3 \rightarrow 1 \rightarrow 4 \rightarrow 2 \end{equation} So what is the period of the system? Is it 2 or 4? We can argue that it is 4 because 4 is a multiple of two and it is acceptable for both cases. But using the prementioned theorem $d(1) = 2$ and all other states should follow. What is it that I am getting wrong here?
The period is $2$ as given in the formula. A Markov chain is periodic if the chain can return to the same state only at multiples of some integer $>1$. See https://www.randomservices.org/random/markov/Periodicity.html