Suppose we consider two graphs to be the equivalent if they are isomorphic. The idea is that if we relabel the vertices of a graph, it is still the same graph. Using this definition of “being the same graph”, can you conclude that the set of trees over countably infinite vertices is countable?
I know that for any isomorphism $f$ and any vertex $v$, $v$ and $f(v)$ have the same degree.
Is the set of trees over countably infinite vertices countable or uncountable?
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There are as many isomorphism classes as the cardinality of $\Bbb R$. To see a family of $\beth_1$ non-isomorphic trees on $\aleph_0$ vertices, start by considering $$0- 1- 2- 3- 4- 5- \cdots$$
Then, consider $S\subseteq \Bbb N$ and, for all $x\in S$, attach to the node $[x]$ other $x+2$ brand new vertices all at distance $1$ from $x$. For each $S$, you obtain a countable tree. No two of these trees are isomorphic, because $n\in S$ if and only if either $n=0$ and the corresponding tree has a vertex of degree $3$, or $n>0$ and the corresponding tree has exactly one node of degree $n+4$. This is an invariant.
The other bound comes from set-theoretic considerations.
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Probably the simplest way to do this is to just look at the set of degrees of the tree. This is an isomorphism invariant. It is a subset of the positive integers, and apart from $\varnothing$ and $\{1\}$, any subset is possible.
To see this, order your set $d_1< d_2<\cdots$. If it is finite, with $r$ elements, set $d_n=d_r$ for $n>r$. Now grow a tree starting from a single root vertex. Give the root vertex $d_1$ offspring, all vertices in the next layer $d_2-1$ offspring, the next layer $d_3-1$ offspring, and so on. Since the set is not $\{1\}$, we have $d_1\geq 1$ and $d_n\geq 2$ for all $n\geq 2$, so this gives an infinite tree. The $n$th layer vertices have degree $d_n$.
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In fact, for any infinite cardinal $\kappa$, there are $2^\kappa$ nonisomorphic asymmetric trees of order $\kappa$. (A graph is asymmetric if it has no nontrivial automorphism,) For a proof see my answer (not the accepted answer) to this Math Overflow question.
Suppose the binary expansion of a real number $r\in[0,1]$ is given by $0.b_1b_2b_3\dots$. Based on this real number, define a tree with countable-infinitely many vertices as follows:
This construction is a bijection between the set of real numbers and a subset of the trees with countable-infinite vertices. Therefore, the latter subset as a whole is uncountably infinite.