Is the system $$x^3+y^3+z^3=1 \\ x\cdot y\cdot z=-1$$ in a neighbourhood of the point $(1; -1; 1)$ uniquely solvable for $y = y (x) $ and $z = z (x)$ ?
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According to that theorem we have the following:
We have the continuous differentiable function $F(x,y,z)=x^3+y^3+z^3-1$and the point $(1,-1,1)$ with $F(1,-1,1)=0$. We have that $\frac{\partial{F}}{\partial{z}}=3z^2\Rightarrow \frac{\partial{F}}{\partial{z}}(1,-1,1)=3\neq 0$. Then there is a neighborhood $(1,-1,1)$ so that whenever $(x, y)$ is sufficiently close to $(x_0, y_0)$ there is a unique $z$ so that $F(x, y, z) = 0$. Moreover, this assignment is makes $z$ a continuous function of $x$ and $y$.
Do we get from that the desired result?
Your question seems to ask if you can write $y$ and $z$ depending on $x$ and not $z$ depending on $x$ and $y$. Moreover, you just considered the first equation but drops the second.
You should consider $$ F(x,y,z)=\begin{pmatrix}x^3+y^3+z^3-1\\xyz-1\end{pmatrix}. $$ Check $F(1,-1,1)$ and $\partial_{y,z}F(1,-1,1)$. Then you can apply the implicite function theorem to get open neighbourhoods $U$ of $1$ and $V$ of $(-1,1)$ and a differentiable bijection $$ g:U\to V $$ such that $$ F(x,g_1(x),g_2(x))=0~\forall x\in U, $$ where $g_i(x)$ is the $i$.th component of $g(x)$. You could say $y(x)=g_1(x)$ and $z(x)=g_2(x)$. The function $g$ as it component functions is as smooth as $F$ is.