From what I understand, the expression is "a countable amount of the order type of Q", which intuitively should be equal to the second expression. Is this true? How do I explain this formally?
Thanks for your time.
From what I understand, the expression is "a countable amount of the order type of Q", which intuitively should be equal to the second expression. Is this true? How do I explain this formally?
Thanks for your time.
Technically, there is a difference. Because we take a lexicographic order on two different products. One which has a discrete order and another which has a dense order.
As luck would have, however, both these products are dense everywhere and without endpoints, and the following theorem finishes the work:
So while technically these are different, they are still isomorphic, so they have the same order type. That of $\Bbb Q$.