Is there a function which graphs the exact same curve in both polar and Cartesian coordinate systems?

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I am interested in finding a function which produces the exact same curve when graphed in polar coordinates, $r=f(\theta)$, and in Cartesian coordinates, $y=f(x)$. Although I cannot yet prove that this function exists, I’m pretty certain it does since I seem to be able to approximate it arbitrarily close.

Here’s what I’ve learned about it so far:

  • Since it produces the same graph in both coordinate systems, that must mean that the resulting curve is invariant under a coordinate system transformation.
  • It must satisfy both of these (mathematically equivalent) functional equations: $f(f(x)\cos x)=f(x)\sin x$ and $f\left(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{f(x)}{x}\right)\right)=\sqrt{x^2+{f(x)}^2}$
  • Near zero, $f(x)$ grows a rate of $x^\varphi$, where $\varphi$ is the golden ratio, $\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}$.
  • $f(x)$ has a vertical asymptote at $x=\frac{\pi}{2}$ and as $x$ approaches $\frac{\pi}{2}$, $f(x)$ blows up towards infinity at the same rate as $\frac{x}{\frac{\pi}{2}-x}$
  • This function can be very closely approximated with $x^\varphi(\cos x)^{1.017776}+\frac{x}{\frac{\pi}{2}-x}(\sin x)^{2.17235}$. The powers of trigonometric functions in this approximation have also been optimized to reduce error as much as possible.

The purple line is the function graphed in polar; the dotted yellow line is the function graphed in Cartesian.The purple line near the x-axis is the error between the two.

The functional equations are relatively easy to derive from the formulae for converting between polar and Cartesian coordinate systems, $y=r\sin \theta$, $x=r\cos \theta$, $r=\sqrt{x^2+y^2}$, and $\theta=\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)$ (It is not necessary to use $\operatorname{atan2}(y,x)$ for theta, since theta and x are probably only defined on the interval $[0,\frac{\pi}{2})$ anyways). Since we know from the premise of the problem that $y=f(x)$, we can replace x and y with their polar counterparts to get $r\sin\theta=f(r\cos\theta)$. And since we also know that $r=f(\theta)$, we can plug that in as well, leaving us with $f(\theta)\sin\theta=f(f(\theta)\cos\theta)$. If we perform the same trick the other way around, starting with $r=f(\theta)$ instead of $y=f(x)$, we can also find the functional equation $\sqrt{x^2+{f(x)}^2}=f\left(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{f(x)}{x}\right)\right)$.

As for the limiting behavior of $f(x)$ when x is near zero or $\frac{\pi}{2}$, these expressions fall pretty nicely out of the first equation if we take into account what we know about the behavior of sine and cosine in those regions.

  • Since $\sin x$ and $\cos x$ can be very closely approximated by $x$ and $1$, respectively, near zero, that means that a more solvable functional equation applies to $f(x)$ in that area: $f(f(x)\cdot 1)=f(x)\cdot x$, which can be solved with a power function. $\left(x^p\right)^p=x^p\cdot x \implies x^{p^2}=x^{p+1} \implies p^2=p+1$, which is a quadratic equation with solutions at $\varphi$ and its conjugate, $-\frac{1}{\varphi}$. However, $\varphi$ is the only solution which works well for this approximation near zero.
  • Likewise, this function can also be approximated well near $\frac{\pi}{2}$ using the same technique. In this case, $\sin x$ becomes $1$ and $\cos x$ becomes $\frac{\pi}{2}-x$, which reduces our functional equation to $f\left(f(x)\cdot\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-x\right)\right)=f(x) \implies f(x)\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-x\right)=x \implies f(x)=\frac{x}{\frac{\pi}{2}-x}$, which again, only applies to $f(x)$ in the neighborhood of $x=\frac{\pi}{2}$.

I was able to obtain my closest approximation of this function so far, $x^\varphi(\cos x)^{1.017776}+\frac{x}{\frac{\pi}{2}-x}(\sin x)^{2.17235}$, by utilizing this limiting behavior as well as brute-force optimization for the powers of sine and cosine.

Right now, I am looking to find out the following:

  • Can it be proven that a function exists such that it graphs the exact same curve in both polar and Cartesian coordinate systems?
  • Can it be proven that this function can only exist on the domain $[0,\frac{\pi}{2})$ while remaining a single-valued function?
  • What is an open or closed-form solution for this function? It can be in the form of anything, such as a power series, Fourier series, infinite product, continued fraction, infinite power tower, anti-derivative, indefinite integral, or something else, so long as it has a mathematically describable pattern (in the case of an infinite expression) and can produce an output for any input of x (or theta) within this function's domain.