It seems intuitive that $(1-\epsilon)^n \geq (1-\epsilon) \cdot (1-2\epsilon) \cdot \ldots \cdot (1- n \epsilon)$, but not by how much or how significantly the difference between these grows dependent on $n$, if at all.
It's known that $(1-\epsilon)^n \leq \frac{1}{1+n\epsilon}$ for $0 < \epsilon < 1$ and $n > 1$. Is there a similar, but tighter, upper bound on the series $\displaystyle \prod_{i=1}^{n} \left(1-i\epsilon\right)$ under these conditions? Or even better, are there direct lower or upper bounds on the difference $\left(\displaystyle \prod_{i=1}^{n} \left( 1-i\epsilon \right)\right) - (1-\epsilon)^n$?
The product vanishes as $n\to\infty$, for $\varepsilon\in(0,\frac{1}n)$, which is covered in Marty Cohen's answer. It also seems to explode for $\varepsilon\in(0.5,1)$, which I will describe. But some strange oscillations seem to occur for $\varepsilon\in(\frac1n,0.5)$.
Let $\varepsilon\in(0.5,1)$. Then $\prod_{i=1}^{n}\left(1-i\varepsilon\right)=\left(1-\varepsilon\right)\cdot\exp\left[\sum_{i=2}^{n}\ln\left(i\varepsilon-1\right)\right]$. We don't include the $i=1$ term in the sum because this is the only positive term over $(0.5,1)$; we invert the sign of the other terms in order to take their logarithm.
Then, given $\ln x\leq x-1$ and $\sum_{i=1}^ni=\frac{n(n+1)}2$, the modulus of the product is bounded by
$$\left(1-\varepsilon\right)\exp\left[\frac{\left(n-1\right)\left(n+2\right)}{2}\varepsilon-2\left(n-1\right)\right]$$
The sign of the product here is simply $(-1)^{n+1}$. The same technique can create a bound for $(1,\infty)$.
Your conjectured bound of $(1-\varepsilon)^n\geq\prod_{i=1}^{n}\left(1-i\varepsilon\right)$ is incorrect, as shown by $n=3, \varepsilon=0.8$. However it is true for $n\geq4, \varepsilon\in(0,\frac1n)$ as it transitively bounds Marty Cohen's bound.