This question is inspired from the answer of: Is every subproduct of rational product is rational?
Is there a set $P$ for which: $$\prod_{p \in P}a_p=I$$ while $$\prod_{p \in P_1}a_p=R$$ for every $P_1 \subset P$, where $R$ is rational, $I$ is irrational, $a_p$ is rational and $0<a_p \le 1$.
If $a_p$ is rational for all $p \in P$, and if the product
$$\prod_{p \in P}a_p$$
is irrational, then for any $p_1 \in P$, the set $P_1 = P - \{p_1\}$ is such that the product
$$\prod_{p \in P_1}a_p$$
is also irrational.