Is there a solution to $\prod_{i=1}^n(x_i+1)=\sum_{i=1}^np_i(x_i+1)$ for polynomials over the naturals such that all $p_i\not\equiv 0$?

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Consider all the solutions to $p_1, p_2\in P[x_1,x_2]$ for the identity: $(x_1+1)(x_2+1)=p_1(x_1+1)+p_2(x_2+1),$

where $P[x_1,x_2]$ is the the space of all polynomials over $x_1,x_2$ with natural coefficients.

It is not hard to see that there are only two solutions; one with $p_1\equiv 0$, and the other with $p_2\equiv 0$.

With a little work I was able to show that in all the solutions for $p_1, p_2, p_3\in P[x_1,x_2, x_3]$ to the identity:

$(x_1+1)(x_2+1)(x_3+1)=p_1(x_1+1)+p_2(x_2+1)+p_3(x_3+1),$

at least one of $p_1, p_2, p_3$ is zero.

My conjecture is that for all $n$, in any solution $(p_1,\ldots,p_n)\in P[x_1,\ldots,x_n]^n$ for the identity:

$\prod_{i=1}^n(x_i+1)=\sum_{i=1}^n p_i(x_i+1),$

at least one of the $p_i$'s is zero.

The arguments I used for $n=3$ get too involved even for $n=4$.

Any idea on what might work to prove this conjecture will be highly appreciated.

UPDATE: THE CONJECTURE IS FALSE

Here is a counter example for $n=4$:

$\prod_{i=1}^4(x_i+1)=(x_4+1)(x_1+1)+x_1x_3(x_4+1)(x_2+1)+x_2(x_4+1)(x_3+1)+(x_3+x_1x_2)(x_4+1).$

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What about $$p_{k}(x_1,\dots,x_n)=\frac{1}{n(x_k+1)}\prod_{i=1}^n(x_i+1)?$$ This satisfies $\prod_{i=1}^n(x_i+1)=\sum_{i=1}^n p_i(x_i+1)$.