I know for $x,y\in\mathbb R$ we have $x<y$ iff there exists a $z\in\mathbb R$, so that $y=x+z^2$. Is there a similar way to „prove“ $x<y$ using only $+$ and $=$? And if not, is there a more or less simple proof for that?
2026-03-27 06:08:23.1774591703
Is there a way to represent the relation $<$ on the real numbers without using multiplication?
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You can't do that.
Your question, in other words, is whether or not $<$ is definable in $(\Bbb R,+)$, and the answer is no. The simplest way to do that is to show that there's an automorphism of $(\Bbb R,+)$ which is not order preserving.
For example, $x\mapsto -x$.