It's my observation.
Let $$n=p_1×p_2×p_3×\dots×p_r$$ where $p_i$ are prime factors and $f$ and $g$ are the functions $$f(n)=1+2+\dots+n$$ And $$g(n)=p_1+p_2+\dots+p_r$$ If we put $n=21$ then $$g(f(21))=g(231)=21.$$ I checked it upto $n=10000$, I did not find another number with this property $g(f(n))=n$.
Can we prove that other such numbers do not exist?
This is a very interesting question…
$\newcommand{sopfr}{\operatorname{sopfr}}$ $f(n)=\frac{n(n+1)}2$ and $g(n)=\sopfr(n)$, the sum of prime factors of $n$ with repeats (OEIS A001414). We want $n$ such that $g(f(n))=n$ or $$\sopfr\left(\frac{n(n+1)}2\right)=n\tag1$$ which can be split into two cases due to the property $\sopfr(ab)=\sopfr(a)+\sopfr(b)$.
*Technically we have to repeat the argument for other possible least prime factors $k$ of $n$ or $n+1$ – and the upper bound $N_k$ of the solution to the inequalities in $n$ increases accordingly, each 3 replaced with $k$. However, the least composite number with least prime factor $k$ is $k^2$, and this increases much faster than $N_k$ (which is $\sim\frac k2$). Indeed, $5^2$ already exceeds $N_5$ for both inequalities.
The method I use above has very strong similarities to the method I used in my most famous answer of all. It is sheer coincidence that 21 is a solution to both the problems I answered.