Is this a valid proof of the chain rule for single variable functions?

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Let

  • $f$ be a continuous and differentiable function
  • $\vec{u}=<x, f(x)>$
  • $\vec{v}=<x(t),f(t)>$
  • $x(t)=t$

Then, $$\vec{u}=\vec{v}$$ $$\frac{d\vec{u}}{dx}=\frac{d\vec{v}}{dt}$$ $$\frac{df}{dx}=\frac{\frac{df}{dt}}{\frac{dx}{dt}}$$ $$\frac{df}{dt}=\frac{df}{dx}\frac{dx}{dt}$$

I've seen lots of other proofs that important subtleties need to be considered whereas here they seem to vanish simply because $\frac{dx}{dt}=1$.

Thanks for any feedback :)