Is this enough to disprove this statement?

Question

I'm trying to disprove the following:

I've done this by considering the second equation with the values listed below:

$$A = -a$$ $$B = -b$$ $$C = -c $$ $$D = -d $$

This should still be parallel to the first plane right? Negative all the coefficients only flips the side of it. From this, consider any point with any values for $a,b,c,d$ and find that the planes are still parallel but the coefficients are not equivalent.

Does this hold up?

Answer 1

or you can use that $$\vec{n_1}=(a;b;c)$$ and $$\vec{n_2}=(A;B;C)$$ are linear dependend