Is this graph ergodic?

1.6k Views Asked by At

I had a long discussion with a friend of mine about if this simple graph is ergodic. I think it is because every state can be reached in an non-endless number of steps. My friend argues that it is not because there are no state transitions from each node to itself. Is that required? If somebody has a few examples for each case, it would perhaps helps me to understand it better --- other than the pure math...

A <----> B

Here the transition matrix:

     A    B
 A  0.0  1.0
 B  1.0  0.0
2

There are 2 best solutions below

0
On BEST ANSWER

Actually, your friend is right, the chain is not ergodic. By definition, a Markov chain with transition matrix $P$ is ergodic if there exists $n \geq 1$ such that

$$P^n > 0. \tag{1}$$

A direct calculation shows that $P^n$ either equals $P$ or

$$\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$$

for any $n \geq 1$. This means that $(1)$ doesn't hold true for any $n \geq 1$.

Intuition: Ergodic means that we can find $n \geq 1$ such that $\mathbb{P}^i(X_n = j)>0$ for any two states $i,j$, i.e. if the process starts at $X_0=i$ it reaches $j$ in $n$ steps with probability $>0$. In the given example, this is not satisfied. For example, for $i=A$, we have either $\mathbb{P}^A(X_n = A)=0$ (if $n$ is odd) or $\mathbb{P}^A(X_n=B)=0$ (if $n$ is even).

Remark: A weaker notion is the so-called "irreducibility" of a Markov chain; then, it is only required that $\mathbb{P}^i(X_n = j)>0$ for some $n$ which may depend on $i$ and $j$. It is not difficult to see that the given Markov chain is irreducible (because, as you say, "every state can be reached in an non-endless number of steps").

0
On

Ergodic Markov chains are in places explicitly defined as being irreducible and aperiodic, for example in Randall, Dana. "Rapidly mixing Markov chains with applications in computer science and physics." Computing in Science & Engineering 8.2 (2006): 30-41.

Definition 1: A Markov chain is ergodic if it is

  1. irreducible, that is, for all $x, y \in \Omega$, there is a $t$ such that $P_t(x, y) > 0$, and
  2. aperiodic, that is, for all $x, y \in \Omega$, $\gcd\{t: P_t(x, y) > 0\} = 1$, where $\gcd$ is the greatest common divider.