Is this Markov chain recurrent or transient?

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A Markov chain $X_n$ $(n\ge1)$ with state space S=0,1,2,3,... has the following transition probabilities:

$$p_{i,i+1}=\frac{(i+1)^2}{2i^2+2i+1},\ p_{i,i-1}=\frac{i^2}{2i^2+2i+1}, \ p_{0,1}=1, \ and \ i\ge 1$$

I am trying to find if it is recurrent or transient. What I have is the following:

Obviously, $p_{i,i+1}$ and $p_{i,i-1}$ depends on $i$, it means that each state will have a different probability. For example, when $i=1$, then $p_{1,2}=4/5$ and $p_{1,0}=1/5$. So, it seems that $p_{i,i+1}$ is decreasing as $p_{i,i-1}$ increases on each step.

$$T=\pmatrix{0&1&0&0&...&0&0&0\\1/5&0&4/5&0&...&0&0&0\\0&4/13&0&9/13&...&0&0&0\\\vdots&\vdots&\vdots&\vdots&\ddots&\vdots&\vdots&\vdots\\0&0&0&0&...&1/2&0&1/2}_{nxn}$$

According to wiki, a state i is recurrent if and only if the expected number of visits to i is infinite:

$$ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}p_{ii}^{(n)}=\infty\\ p_{ii}=Pr(X_n=i|X_0=0)\ for\ n\ge 1$$

for a recurrent state i, the mean hitting time is defined as:

$$M_i=E\left[ T_i \right]=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}nf_{ii}^{(n)}$$

State i is positive recurrent (or non-null persistent) if Mi is finite; otherwise, state i is null recurrent (or null persistent).

If this Markov chain had a finite state space:

I think that I should be positive recurrent because it is possible to get to any state from any state.

How does the infinite state space change this fact? I haven't found good information about it.

What about this?

If we start from zero, it seems that the MC may return to zero almost surely with probability 1.

Thank you!

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Adapting my answer from here, which asks basically the same question.


Let $h_n=\mathbb P_n(\text{hit }0)$, so $h_0=1$. Then $$h_n=p_{n,n-1}h_{n-1}+p_{n,n+1}h_{n+1}\implies \frac{h_{n+1}-h_n}{h_n-h_{n-1}}=\frac{n^2}{(n+1)^2}.$$ Telescoping, we get $h_{n+1}-h_n=\frac{1}{(n+1)^2}(h_1-h_0)$. So summing over $0\leq n\leq m-1$, we obtain $$h_m=1+(h_1-1)\sum_{k=1}^m\frac{1}{k^2}.$$ As $\sum_{k=1}^m\frac{1}{k^2}\to\frac{\pi^2}{6}$, the fact that $(h_m)_{m=0}^\infty$ is the smallest non-negative solution to this equation implies that $h_1=1-\frac{6}{\pi^2}<1$. This is enough to show that the chain is transient.