Is this reasoning of Chinese Remainder Theorem correct?

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Originally I want to prove $y^{p'} \equiv x^n + C \pmod p$ is always having integer solution for some prime $p$ and $p'$

It is given by my classmate, so I do not know if it can really be proved, but this question is about my approach as stated below:

If $y \equiv x^n + C \pmod 3 $ has integer solution for some integers $n$ and $C$,

then is it correct to say, by Chinese Remainder Theorem:

there exists some integer $z$ which $y \equiv z^n + C \pmod p$ for some prime $p$?

As $3$ and $p$ must be co-prime.

If yes, then I think the original statement is also proved (assuming I can prove $y \equiv x^n + C \pmod 3$)

If no, please tell me what is wrong behind my reasoning of this approach. Thanks.