So I just came across a physics derivation where the treat the $dv$ and $dx$ operators like fractions while I have always heard it's a mistake. But so far what I came up with:
$$\begin{align*} \frac{dv}{dt}\times dx &= \lim_{h\to0} \frac{v(t+h)-v(t)}h \times (x(t+h)-x(t)) \\ &= \lim_{h\to0} \frac{x(t+h)-x(t)}h \times (v(t+h)-v(t)) \\ &= \frac{dx}{dt}\times dv \end{align*}$$
Is my reasoning correct? If not please explain what is the correct way to think about this.
Just before a differential disappears in the limit we are allowed to view them as small segments of length or small packets of velocity. Even after disappearance their ratio continues to make sense.
$$ \frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x} \to\frac{dy}{dx} =y' = \tan \phi$$ $$ \frac{\Delta x}{\Delta s} \to\frac{dx}{ds} =\cos \phi$$ $$ \frac{\Delta y}{\Delta s} \to\frac{dy}{ds} =\sin \phi. $$
Similarly packets of mass or velocity in a packet (interval) of time made.. even now makes sense in the Newtonian formulation of force :
$$ F =\frac{\Delta(m v)}{\Delta t }= \frac{v\Delta m}{\Delta t }+\frac{m\Delta v}{\Delta t }$$
$$\to v\frac{dm}{dt }+m \frac{ dv}{dt } $$
Even after the disappearance of finite differential form their product continues to make sense.