I am trying to inverse laplace transform the following:
$$F(s)=\frac{1-e^{-s} + se^{-s} + s^3}{s^2(s^2+2)}$$
and I believe what I do is take:
$$\frac{1-e^{-s} + se^{-s} + s^3}{s^2(s^2+2)}=\frac{A}{s}+\frac{B}{s^2}+\frac{Cs+D}{s^2+2}$$
and then I get:
$$1-e^{-s} + se^{-s} + s^3=A*s(s^2+2)+B(s^2+2)+(C*s+D)s^2$$
Is this the correct setup?
Note: I know what to do after this, if it is the correct setup.
Yes, it is. Treat $s$ like $(s+0)$, so it becomes a repeated linear factor.
For $$\frac{f(s)}{s^2(s^2+2)}=\frac{f(s)}{(s+0)^2(s^2+2)}$$
Then you use the rule that $$\frac{f(s)}{(s+a)^2(s^2+b)}=\frac{A}{s+0}+\frac{B}{(s+0)^2}+\frac{Cx+D}{s^2+b}$$