Consider the ideal $I$ defined by $$I : = \left \{ f(x) \in \Bbb Z_{11}[X]\ :\ f(2) = 0 \right \}$$ in $\Bbb Z_{11}[X].$ Is $I$ a maximal ideal in $\Bbb Z_{11} [X]$?
My attempt $:$ What I think is that $I = \langle X-2 \rangle$ and $X-2$ is irreducible in $\Bbb Z_{11} [X] .$ So $I$ is a non-zero prime ideal in the PID $\Bbb Z_{11} [X]$ and hence it has to be maximal. Am I doing any mistake?
Please help me in this regard. Thank you very much for your valuable time.
This looks good to me. In fact $I= \langle x-2 \rangle$, since for every $f \in \langle x-2 \rangle$ we have: $f=(x-2)g$, where $g \in \mathbb{Z}/11\mathbb{Z}[X]$ and therefore $f(2)=0$. So we have $\langle x-2 \rangle \subset I$.
The other direction follows by the same argument that you gave: $\langle x-2 \rangle$ is a maximal ideal in $\mathbb{Z}/11\mathbb{Z}[X]$ and clearly $I\neq \langle 1 \rangle$.