Let $C_{1}$ and $C_{2}$ be two circles, respectively with radius $1$ and $2$ endowed with the riemannian metric induced by the euclidean metric. I need to show that they are not isometric. This seems simple but I cannot get a proof.
Here is what I have tried. I work with a generic circle $C_{r}$ of radius $r>0$. First, we have the local coordinate $\theta$ on the circle such that, locally:
$$\phi(\theta)=(r\cos(\theta),r\sin(\theta)),\quad \theta\in[0,2\pi)$$
Denote by $g_{0}=(dx)^{2}+(dy)^{2}$ the euclidean metric on $\mathbb{R}^{2}$. The induced metric is given by
$$\phi^{\ast}g_{0}=r^{2}(d\theta)^{2}$$
If $\gamma:I\to M$ is a differentiable curve (in the sequel, a curve) from an interval $I\subset\mathbb{R}$ to a riemannian manifold $M,g$, the length of $\gamma$ is defined as
$$\ell(\gamma)=\int_{I}\sqrt{g(\dot\gamma(t),\dot\gamma(t))}$$
The distance between two points $x,y\in M$ relatively to the metric $g$ is defined as
$$d_{g}(x,y) = \inf\{\ell(\gamma)\mid\gamma:[0,1]\to M,\gamma\text{ is a curve},\gamma(0)=x,\gamma(1)=y\}$$
It is easy to see that if
$$i:M,g\to N,h$$
is an isometry (i.e. a diffeomorphism such that $i^{\ast}h=g$), then for any curve $\gamma:I\to M$ we have
$$\ell(\gamma)=\ell(i\circ\gamma).$$
Hence, we have
$$d_{g}(x,y) = d_{h}(i(x),i(y))$$
Therefore, let
$$\gamma:[0,1]\to C_{r}:t\mapsto \gamma(t) = (r\cos(s(t)),r\sin(s(t)))$$
A quick computation shows that
$$\ell(\gamma)=r\int_{0}^{1}\vert \dot s(t)\vert_{1} dt$$
where $\vert v\vert_{k}$ denotes the euclidean norm of $v\in\mathbb{R}^{k}$.
As we want to prove that $C^{1}$ and $C^{2}$ are not isometric, we need to show that there exists no isometry $i:C^{1}\to C^{2}$. If we suppose there exists such an isometry, we must have
$$\ell(\gamma)=\ell(i\circ \gamma)$$
for any curve $\gamma:[0,1]\to C_{1}$.
But I am stuck. How to conclude from this?
The point is that the lenght of a curve does not depends on the parametrization. So $i \circ \gamma_1$ should be a reparametrization of $\gamma_2$, in particular they have the same lenght. So if $C_1, C_2$ are isometric this would implies as @Henning Makholm said that $2\pi = 4\pi$ which is absurd.