I am studing Kähler differentials and I tried to understand the geometric motivation behind these settings. What I do not understand is the role which plays the diagonal in all these theory. The cotangent sheaf is later defined in terms of the diagonal map. Why is this geometrically interesting? I tried to write a short introduction to Kähler differential to make the geometric nature more available, but I do not now if it make sense. Here it is:
Differential $ 1 $-forms are linear transformations $ \omega_{p}:T_p X\mapsto K $ assigning an element in $ K $ to a tangent vector of the tangent space $ T_p X $ of a point $ p\in X $ in some differential manifold $ X $. Differential $ 1 $-forms can be viewed as \textit{infinitesimal} direction vectors $ \triangle p $. This means in physical terms, that the scalar $ \omega_p(\triangle t)\in K $ with $ \triangle t $ a tangent vector represents the \textit{work} required to move from $ x_i $ to $ x_{i+1} $ with $ p\in (x_i,x_{i+1}) $ along some curve. In other words, differential forms are cotangent vectors over some field $ K $, which give information about the work which is locally required to move along some curve. However, they can be generalized and captured by sheaf theory. For this attempt, we observe first that $ \triangle p $ is related to Taylor expansions. Indeed, let $ f $ be a smooth function, that is $ f\in C^{\infty}(\mathbb{C}) $, on a differential manifold $ X$ and let $\mathfrak{J}$ be the ideal of smooth functions vanishing at the point $p\in X$. The zero order part of the Taylor series of a smooth function $f$ is the value of $f$ at the point $ p $, let us say, $ f(p)=c $, so that $ f-c\in\mathfrak{J}$. Now the first order derivatives of $f-c$ correspond to the first order terms in the Taylor series and these are given by the image of $f$ in $\mathfrak{J}/\mathfrak{J}^2$. Let us denote this map by $ d(f) $ with $ d: \mathcal{O}_X\rightarrow \mathfrak{J}/\mathfrak{J}^2 $ and where $ \mathcal{O}_X $ denotes the ring of smooth functions on $ X $. Moreover, if $ f $ is constant, this means a fixed vector, then $ d(f)=0 $. Another important input is that $ \triangle p$ is required to be non zero, as there is no direction available for the zero vector. But $ \triangle p=0 $ is satisfied if and only if the two endpoints of the tangent vector $ \triangle p $ are choosen to be the same, which happens if and only if the point $ p\in X $ correspond to an element on the diagonal of $ X\times X $. So we demand that we just consider elements in $ X\times X $ vanishing on the diagonal (or in the complement of the diagonal).
Summarizing up, my two questions are the following:
1) which geoemtric interpretation have the diagonal in these context?
2) Higher derivations seemed to me a generalization of Kähler differentials, but what is their motivation or geometric nature (analogy to differential geometry), since I cannot see any connection between Kähler differentials and higher derivations ?
I believe that you are interested to the algebraic geometry setting: if yes then I suggest you Vakil's FOAG (available at http://math.stanford.edu/~vakil/216blog/FOAGdec2915public.pdf); exactly the chapters 12 (sections 1, 2, 3 and 6) and 21 (sections from 1 to 5).