I have given the following function
$$ f(x,y) = \begin{cases} 1 &, \ x \in \mathbb{Q} \\ 2y & , \text{ otherwise} \end{cases} $$
This is a measurable function in sense of Lebesgue. Now, I have to answer the question if the following integral exists in the sense of Lebesgue and if $f(x,y)$ is Lebesgue-integrable.
$$ \int_{[0,1]} \int_{[0,1]} f(x,y) \ \mathrm d \lambda(x)\mathrm d \lambda(y) \text{ or } \int_{[0,1]} \int_{[0,1]} f(x,y) \ \mathrm d \lambda(y)\mathrm d \lambda(x) $$
We had the theorem of Fubini for non-negative functions. And this function is on $[0,1]\times [0,1]$ non-negative. So this integral should exist and both are equal.
To show that $f(x,y)$ is Lebesgue-integrable I just have to calculate one of the integrals above
$$\int_{[0,1]\times[0,1]} f(x,y) \ \mathrm d \lambda(x,y) =\int_{[0,1]} \int_{[0,1]} f(x,y) \ \mathrm d \lambda(y)\mathrm d \lambda(x) \\ = \underbrace{ \int_{[0,1]\cap \mathbb{Q}} \int_{[0,1]} f(x,y) \ \mathrm d \lambda(y)\mathrm d \lambda(x)}_{=0 \text{ (null set) }}+\int_{(\mathbb{R}\setminus \mathbb{Q})\cap[0,1]} \int_{[0,1]} f(x,y) \ \mathrm d \lambda(y)\mathrm d \lambda(x) \\ = \underbrace{ \int_{(\mathbb{R}\setminus \mathbb{Q})\cap[0,1]}\underbrace{ \int_{[0,1]} 2y \ \mathrm d \lambda(y)}_{=1}\mathrm d \lambda(x)}_{\lambda((\mathbb{R}\setminus \mathbb{Q})\cap[0,1])=\lambda([0,1])=1} = 1 < \infty$$
So it follow that $f(x,y)$ is lebesgue-integrable. The answer is both integrals exists in the sense of lebesgue and the function is integrable.
Question:
Is my caluclation right or did I something wrong? Because my tutor said, this function is not lebesgue integrable, but did not say why.