Can someone check my solution for this problem? It seems to me that it’s incomplete, and I’m not sure.
Problem: Let $b \in [0,1)$. Prove that $\frac{b}{1-b} \in [0,\infty)$.
Solution: We know that $b \in [0,1)$, so $0 \leq b < 1$. From here we can also deduce that $ 0 < 1-b \leq 1$. So $\frac{1}{1-b} \geq 1$. Multiplying by $b$ we obtain that $\frac{b}{1-b} \geq b$. Since $b \geq 0$ we conclude that $\frac{b}{1-b} \geq 0$. Therefore $\frac{b}{b-1} \in [0,\infty)$.
Define the function $ f $ from $[0,1)$ to $ \Bbb R$ by
$$(\forall x\in[0,1))\;\; f(x)=\frac{x}{1-x}$$
$ f $ is continuous at $ [0,1)$.
$ f $ is differentiable at $ [0,1)$ and
$$(\forall x\in[0,1))\;\; f'(x)=\frac{1-x+x}{(1-x)^2}>0$$ $ f $ is then strictly increasing at $ [0,1)$.
Thus, $ f $ is a bijection from $ [0,1)$ to $$f([0,1))=[f(0),\lim_{x\to 1^-}f(x))=[0,+\infty)$$
we conclude that $$(\forall b\in[0,1))\;\; f(b)=\frac{b}{1-b}\ge 0$$
Remark:
You can simply say $$0\le b<1\; \implies$$ $$b\ge 0 \text{ and } 1-b>0 \;\implies$$ $$\frac{b}{1-b}\ge 0\; \implies$$ $$\frac{b}{1-b}\in [0,+\infty)$$