Would you have a hint for that:
Let $f : [0,1] \to [0,1]$ continuous. Let $(u_n)$ s.t. $\forall n, u_{n+1}=f(u_n)$.
Show that $(u_n)$ converges $\iff u_{n+1} - u_n \to 0$.
I need to prove there is only one accumulation point. I can prove the set of all those points is an interval, so if there are more than one, there is an infinity actually.
(Also, there exists at least one $x$, $f(x) = x$.)

I think you've done most of the work already, thanks to this.
You can also show that, if $\ell$ is an accumulation point, then $f(\ell)=\ell$. Indeed, if $(u_{n_p})$ converges to $\ell$, then $f(u_{n_p})$ converges to $f(\ell)$ by continuity, but $f(u_{n_p}) = u_{n_p+1}$ gets arbitrarily close to $u_{n_p}$.
Now, assume that the set of accumulation points is non-trivial. Then it's a closed interval $[a,b]$ with $a<b$. You know that $f(x) = x$ on this interval. Take an interior point $x_0$. How can the sequence $(u_n) = (f^n (u_0))$ converge to $x_0$? Can you get a contradiction?