Informally I think what I am trying to prove is that at any point on the shell of the sphere of radius 1 centered at (0,0,0) in R3 has a derivative normal to that point's vector.
This is what I have so far:
$\sqrt {f_1(x)^2+f_2(x)^2+f_3(x)^2}=1 \iff f_1(x)^2+f_2(x)^2+f_3(x)^2=1$
This is the step that confuses me; am I allowed to just state this?
$\Rightarrow \frac{d}{dx}(f_1(x)^2+f_2(x)^2+f_3(x)^2)=0 \iff \frac{d}{dx}f_1(x)^2+\frac{d}{dx}f_2(x)^2+\frac{d}{dx}f_3(x)^2=0$.
This step is also one I am not sure if I'm allowed to do
$\iff 2(f_1(x)\frac{df_1}{dx}(x)+f_2(x)\frac{df_2}{dx}(x)+f_3(x)\frac{df_3}{dx}(x))=0 \iff f_1(x)\frac{df_1}{dx}(x)+f_2(x)\frac{df_2}{dx}(x)+f_3(x)\frac{df_3}{dx}(x)=0=f(x)\cdot\frac{df}{dx}(x)\Box$
Just take the equality $f_1(x)^2+f_2(x)^2+f_3(x)^2=1$ and differentiate both sides with respect to $x$. What do you get?
The two steps you are confused about are linearity of differentiation: $\frac{d}{dx}(f(x)+g(x))=\frac{d}{dx} f(x)+\frac{d}{dx} g(x)$ and $\frac{d}{dx}(af(x))=a\frac{d}{dx}f(x)$ for functions $f$ and $g$ and a real number $a$.