My professor is telling me that I can prove this with a proof by cases approach, but I can only see possible options via a contradiction in the hypothesis and via induction. Is what my professor says true? Also, is my written proof rigorous and correct?
Here is what I have:
Proof:
Let $n\in\mathbb{N}$. Let $|n - 1| + |n + 1|\leq 1$
Observe that:
$$|n-1|+|n+1| = |(n-1) +(n+1)|$$
Since $n\in\mathbb{N}$, $n\geq 1$ by definition of natural numbers.
So, $n-1\geq 0$. Therefore, $n-1$ must be non negative, by definition of $0$.
Since $n\geq 1$, $n+1\geq 2$.
Therefore, $(n-1)+( n+1)\geq 2$ and we observe that this cannot be negative.
Observe that:
$$|n-1|+|n+1| = |(n-1) +(n+1)|$$
for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$.
This leads us to the observation that the absolute values in the statement $|(n-1)+(n+1)|$ are irrelevant, so we can drop them without loss of generality. So, $|n-1|+|n+1|\cong (n-1)+( n+1)$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$.
Therefore,
$|n-1|+|n+1|\leq 1 $
$\cong (n-1)+( n+1)\leq 1$
$= 2n\leq 1$
$= n \leq 1/2 < 1$
and thus $n < 1$.
However, as we established above, by definition of natural numbers, $n\geq 1$.
This is a contradiction.
Therefore the hypothesis is false for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$ and the implication is vacuously true.
Actulally $|n-1| \leq 1$ and $|n+1| \leq 1$ so $|n^{2}-1|=|n-1||n+1| \leq 1$.
We don't even need the fact that $n$ is an integer!
EDIT. Actually the question is meaningless since there is no natural number satisfying the hypothesis.