Let $R$ be a commutative Noetherian ring (with unity), and let $I$ be an ideal of $R$ such that $R/I \cong R$. Then is it true that $I=(0)$ ?
I know that a surjective ring endomorphism of a Noetherian ring is also injective, and since there is a natural surjection from $R$ onto $R/I$ we get a surjection from $R$ onto $R$, but the problem is I can not determine the map explicitly and I am not sure about the statement. Please help. Thanks in advance.
Assume that $R/I$ and $R$ are isomorphic. Let us denote the isomophism by $f:R/I \to R$.
Let $\pi:R \to R/I$ denote the usual map $x \mapsto x + I$. This is a of course a surjective ring homomorphism.
The composition $f \circ \pi : R \to R$ is thus a surjective ring endomorphism (the composition of surjections is a surjection).
By the result quoted in the question $f \circ \pi$ is an isomorphism, in particular it is injective. It follows that $\pi$ is injective, otherwise the composition could not be injective.
The kernel of $\pi$ is thus $\{0\}$; it is also is $I$. Thus $I = \{0\}$