Let $a,b\in A$, and assume $a \sim b$. Let $c\in [a]$. This means $c\sim a$. Since $c\sim a$ and $a\sim b$, so therefore $c\sim b$, which means $c\in [b]$.
Would this be the correct way to show a contradiction?
Let $a,b\in A$, and assume $a \sim b$. Let $c\in [a]$. This means $c\sim a$. Since $c\sim a$ and $a\sim b$, so therefore $c\sim b$, which means $c\in [b]$.
Would this be the correct way to show a contradiction?
Your "proof" is incorrect. What you have shown is instead the converse, which is not equivalent to the original statement.
To prove by contradiction, we assume that the conclusion is false, i.e. $c \in [b]$. Since $a \in [b]$ and $\sim$ is an equivalence relation, we have that $[a] = [b]$, so $c \in [a]$. This contradicts our hypothesis that $c \notin [a]$.