Let $X$ and $Y$ be exponentially distributed random variables with parameter $1$ and let $U=\operatorname{min}\{X,Y\}$ and $V=\operatorname{max}\{X,Y\}$. Show that $V-U$ is independent of $U$.
We have shown that $U$ is distributed exponentially with parameter $2$.
I am surprised to find that I don't actually know how to do this. I know of no other way than to show that $\mathbb{P}(U<x,V-U<y)=\mathbb{P}(U<x)\space\mathbb{P}(V-U<y)$ and I don't think I know how to compute the left hand side.
Can we do $$\int^{\infty}_0f_V(v)\mathbb{P}(x>U>v-y)\operatorname{dv}=\int^{\infty}_0\left(\left(\int F_X(t)F_Y(t)\operatorname{dt}\right)\left(\int^x_{v-y}2e^{-2u}\operatorname{du}\right)\right)\operatorname{dv}?$$
As $F_V(v)=F_X(v)F_Y(v)$ where $F_X$ and $F_Y$ are the distribution functions of $X$ and $Y$ respectively and $\int^x_{v-y}2e^{-2u}\operatorname{du}=\mathbb{P}(v-y<U<x)$.
I think I've seen this before but I really don't think this is what I'm meant to do, is this correct in general and is there a better way in this specific case?
Any guidance would help me out a lot, thanks!
This follows from properties of the Poisson process. Let two independent Poisson processes, both with rate 1, start at 0. Then $X$ is waiting time before first event in process 1, and $Y$ is waiting time before first event in process 2. If we view the two processes together, combined, it is one Poisson process with rate 2.
Then $U=\min(X,Y)$ is the waiting time before first event in the combined process, and $V-U$ is the interarrival time between first and second event in the combined process. We know that different interarrival times in a poisson process are independent, which gives the result, without any calculations.