Let $X = (-1,1)^{\Bbb N}$ have the product topology. Is the subset $(0,1)^{\Bbb N}$ open?
To consider whether $(0,1)^{\Bbb N}$ is open I know that it is if I can find a basic open set that is a subset of this set, but I'm tangled up with the definitions. Is it that
$(0,1)^{\Bbb N}$ is open if one can find a basic open set $\prod_{n \in \Bbb N} V_n \subset (0,1)^{\Bbb N}$ such that $\color{red}{V_n = (0,1)^\Bbb N}$ for all but finitely many $n$.
or is it that
$(0,1)^{\Bbb N}$ is open if one can find a basic open set $\prod_{n \in \Bbb N} V_n \subset (0,1)^{\Bbb N}$ such that $\color{red}{V_n = (-1,1)^\Bbb N}$ for all but finitely many $n$.
I have some confusion with this since we're dealing with a subspace of $(-1,1)^\Bbb N$.
Your space $X$ is the product of infinitely many copies of $(-1, 1)$, so for the basic open in $X$, that is the interval that almost all of the $V_n$ must be equal.
(In general, a subbasis of a topological product space $\prod X_n$ is $\prod U_n$ where all but one $U_n$ is $X_n$, and thus a basis will have only finitely many $U_n \neq X_n$. Everyone thinks this is strange the first time they encounter infinite products, and would intuitively go for the so-called box topology instead. But there are deep theoretical reasons why this is objectively the best choice, mostly linked to it being the coarsest topology that makes each coordinate projection continuous.)
And clearly, if some $V_n$ are equal to $(-1, 1)$ (and none of the $V_n$ are empty), then $\prod V_n$ cannot be a subset of $(0, 1)^{\Bbb N}$, as $\prod V_n$ will contain points that have at least some negative coordinates.