Let $X$ and $Y$ be random variables with a discrete joint distribution, and let $Z = r(x, y)$ for some function $r$.

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Prove that the conditional distribution of $Z$ given $X = x$ is the same as the conditional distribution of $r(x, y)$ given $X = x$.

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Maybe I am misunderstanding the question, but if Z = r(x,y), then the conditional distribution of Z will be equal to the conditional distribution of r(x,y) because they are the same thing.