I've been set the following question, but I think the question is wrong.
Let $|X| ≤ b $ be a random variable. Show $\forall a \in [0,b)$ $ \mathbb{P}(|X|>a)≥\frac{\mathbb{E}[X]-a}{b-a}$
Working: Let $a \in [0,b) $ be arbitrary.
By the total law of probability for expectation $$\mathbb{E}[|X|] = \mathbb{E}[|X|:|X|>a]\mathbb{P}(|X|>a) + \mathbb{E}[|X|:|X|≤a]\mathbb{P}(|X|≤a)$$ Noting that $\mathbb{P}(|X|≤a) = 1-\mathbb{P}(|X|>a)$, we have $$\mathbb{E}[|X|] = (\mathbb{E}[|X|:|X|>a]-\mathbb{E}[|X|:|X|≤a])\mathbb{P}(|X|>a) + \mathbb{E}[|X|:|X|≤a]$$ and so $$\mathbb{P}(|X|>a) = \frac{\mathbb{E}[|X|]-\mathbb{E}[|X|:|X|≤a]}{\mathbb{E}[|X|:|X|>a]-\mathbb{E}[|X|:|X|≤a]}$$
Now $\mathbb{P}(|X|>a)≥\min \text{RHS}$, and noting that $0≤\mathbb{E}[|X|:|X|≤a]≤a$ and $a<\mathbb{E}[|X|:|X|>a]≤b$ should yield the answer.
However, to minimise our fraction, the denominator must be large and so the maximum value of the denominator is $b$, not the $b-a$ the question asks for.
Is it possible that the question setter has mistakenly thought $w<x, y<z \implies w-y<x-z$, or have I missed something here!?
The inequality is correct. As a start, convince yourself (by considering cases if necessary) that $X-a\le(b-a)1_{\{|X|>a\}}$.