$r\in\Bbb R$, $|r|\gt1$ and $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\{r^n\}$ exists. Can one conclude that $r$ is an integer? Here, $\{x\}=x-[x] $ is the fractional part of $x\in\Bbb R$
If $r\in\Bbb Q$, the answer is yes!
Thanks a lot!
$r\in\Bbb R$, $|r|\gt1$ and $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\{r^n\}$ exists. Can one conclude that $r$ is an integer? Here, $\{x\}=x-[x] $ is the fractional part of $x\in\Bbb R$
If $r\in\Bbb Q$, the answer is yes!
Thanks a lot!
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Nope!
For example, the number
$$(1 - \sqrt{2})^n + (1 + \sqrt{2})^n $$
is always an integer, which can be seen in various ways, such as using the binomial theorem to expand the two binomials and seeing that the odd powers of $\sqrt{2}$ cancel out.
However, $|1 - \sqrt{2}| < 1$, and so the first term converges to $0$ as $n \to \infty$.
Thus, the difference between $(1 + \sqrt{2})^n$ and the nearest integer decreases to $0$ as $n \to \infty$.
This sequence actually alternates between being slightly above and slightly below an integer: to get the fractional part to converge, we can just take every other term. Thus
$$r = (1 + \sqrt{2})^{2} = 3 + 2 \sqrt{2}$$
is a counterexample to your conjecture.