Let $k\in(0,1)$ be fixed. If $\limsup_{x\to\infty}f(kx)\leq \epsilon$ and $\liminf_{x\to\infty}f(\frac{x}{k})\geq -\epsilon$ for all $\epsilon>0$ then is it possible to say $$\lim_{k\to\infty}f(x)=0.$$
2026-03-27 16:19:23.1774628363
Limit based on bounds
119 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in CALCULUS
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