I do not understand the following limit-rule:
$$\lim_{x\to\infty}\exp(f(x))=\exp(\lim_{x\to\infty}f(x))$$
Why is that true?
I do not understand the following limit-rule:
$$\lim_{x\to\infty}\exp(f(x))=\exp(\lim_{x\to\infty}f(x))$$
Why is that true?
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Since the exponential function $\exp(\cdot) : \mathbb R \to \mathbb R$ is continuous, if the limit $\lim_{x \to \infty} f(x)$ exists, then it can be indeed written that : $$\lim_{x\to\infty}\exp(f(x))=\exp(\lim_{x\to\infty}f(x))$$