Find $\lim_{x \to 0} \dfrac{\tan^{-1}(\sin^{-1}(x))-\sin^{-1}(\tan^{-1}(x))}{\tan(\sin(x))-\sin(\tan(x))}$
I came across this limit a long time ago and could easily obtain a straightforward solution by finding the asymptotic expansion. But since the limit turns out to be nice despite the messy coefficients, I'm just curious if there is some reason other than just coincidental coefficients.
(this is the answer I gave in the comments below the question. I guess a nicer solution exists.)
If $f,g$ are say analytic functions of one variable such that $f(0)=g(0)=0$ and $f'(0)=g'(0)=1$, and $f\neq g^{-1}$ (the Taylor series of $f^{-1}$ and $g$ are not equal) then $$\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{f^{-1}(x)-g(x)}{g^{-1}(x)-f(x)}=1,$$ hence the answer is $1$.
To see it (the best way is with pictures, but formulas will do):
Since $f(x)=x+O(x^2)$ we have $$\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{f^{-1}(x)-g(x)}{f^{-1}(f(x))-g(f(x))}=1$$ as the Taylor series of $f^{-1}(x)-g(x)$ and $f^{-1}(f(x))-g(f(x))$ have the same leading term $ax^n$ (whatever $a$ and $n$ are).
On the other hand $$\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{g(g^{-1}(x))-g(f(x))}{g^{-1}(x)-f(x)}=1,$$ because $g'(0)=1$ and $g^{-1}(x),f(x)\to 0$ as $x\to 0$.
Now just use $f^{-1}(f(x))=g(g^{-1}(x))=x$.