I'm a little confused about the following problem: The sequence $a_n$ tends to $a$. Show that $b_n:=\frac{1}{n+1}(a_0+a_1+\cdots+a_n)$ tends to $a$ aswell.
It looks like $b_n$ is simply the average of the first $n$ elements of $a$. So intuitively it makes sense that the average is getting closer to $a$ since you can get an arbitrary amount of arbitrarily close elements to $a$.
So can I just write $|\frac{1}{n+1}(a_0+a_1+\cdots+a_n)-a|<\varepsilon$ and express $n$ in terms of epsilon or is it a problem that I have an entire sequence within?
HINT:
Write $$\frac1n \sum_{k=0}^na_k=\frac1n \sum_{k=0}^Na_k+\frac1n \sum_{k=N+1}^na_k \tag 1$$
For and $\epsilon>0$, choose $N$ so that $a-\epsilon <a_k<a+\epsilon$ for $k>N$. Then for this fixed $N$, observe that the first sum on the right-hand side of $(1)$ can be made arbitrarily small by choosing $n$ large enough. For the second sum, all of the terms are within $\epsilon$ of $a$. You should be able to make a rigorous argument that shows that the second term can be made arbitrarily close to $a$.
HINT 2:
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