I'm interested in evaluating:
$$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{i^2} [ \prod_{j=i}^n \frac{kj -1}{kj} ]^2$$
for $k$ some constant. After trying a bit, I have not figured out if the expression converges or diverges. Wolfram has given the clue that without the $1 / i^2$, the sum of products diverges.
Any other insights or connections to known expressions would be appreciated.
Let's first consider the infinite product$\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty} \prod_{j=1}^{n}\frac{kj-1}{kj}$
We know that if $1+a_j=1-(1-\frac{kj-1}{kj})>0$ then $\displaystyle\prod_{j=1}^{\infty}1+a_j$ converges if and only if $\displaystyle\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}a_j$ converges.
$a_j=1-1+\frac{1}{kj} = \frac{1}{kj}$, we notice that $\displaystyle\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}a_j$ diverges and therefore the infinite product diverges.
Please note the condition of $\frac{kj-1}{kj}>0$ for this to apply must be eventually true since it approaches 1, and the beginning terms can be factored out. Also note that this is not a complete answer, since I have not addressed anything besides the product.