$$\log\left(\binom{n}{x} \pi^x (1-\pi)^{n-x}\right)=x \log \pi + (n-x)\log(1-\pi)$$ this is what i have.
i dont understand how $\binom{n}{x}$ disappears, but the rest is fine.
I tried this, but it is getting complicated. Is there some way I can do things like this quickly and at the first glance?
$$\begin{align}\log\left(\binom{n}{x}\right) & = \log\left(\dfrac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}\right)\\ \\ & =\log(n!)-\log\left[x!(n-x)!\right] \\ \\ & = \log(n!)-\left[\log(x!)+\log(n-x)!\right] \\ \\ & = \;\; \cdots \end{align}$$
This is only true when $x=0$ or $x=n$. Otherwise the final term does not disappear.