Claim:
Suppose that you have n books that you want to read in n days, reading one book each day. There are (n!)^2 many ways to do this.
Proof.
Start by selecting your first book; there are n ways in which you can do this. Now, select a day to read that book on: there are also n ways in which you can do this. Assign that book to that day, and remove that book/day from our set of choices. There are n^ 2 many ways in which we can do this; we have n books and n days, and any possible pairing is valid. Now, do the same thing again. There are n − 1 choices for our second book, as we have removed one choice already; there are also n − 1 choices for the day on which we read this book. There are (n − 1)^2 many ways in which we can do this, by the same logic as above. Repeat this process! In total, we have n 2 · (n − 1)2 · . . . · 2 2 · 1 2 = (n!)^2 many ways in which to read our books.
Struggling to tell if there is a flaw in the logic or not. My example: Suppose we have 2 books, that I want to read in 2 days... one for each day... there are supposedly 2^2 ways to do this...
Book A - Monday
Book B - Monday
Book A -Tuesday
Book B Tuesday
Select a book 2 ways to do this, 2 ways to select a day. So assigned Book A to Monday , and removed it from set. There is one choice for book and one choice for day, only one way to do this now... Does this seem right or am i missing something would greatly appreciate feedback :)
You overcount.
You say that Book A on Monday is a different way to read the books from reading Book B on Tuesday. But clearly those are actually the same: you read Book A and Monday if and only if you read Book B on Tuesday.