I have a premise $(A \lor B)$ and need to achieve the conclusion $\Big(\big(A \& B \big) \lor \big((\neg{}A \& B) \lor (A \& \neg{}B)\big)\Big)$
This intuitively makes sense since $(A \lor B)$ means at least one of them is true. I just can't figure out how the conclusion can be achieved formally. I tried assuming the conclusion is false and achieving a falsum, but that didn't get anywhere. I also tried using disjunction introduction rule backwards but that didn't work either.
Any strategies on how to attack this proof?
You can always check the truth table to see the relation between two logical statements. All the well known / widly used relations are based on this.
Truth table of $A\vee B$ : $$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|} \hline B\backslash A&1&0\\\hline 1&1&1\\\hline 0&1&0\\\hline \end{array}$$
Truth table of $\Big(\big(A \& B \big) \lor \big((\neg{}A \& B) \lor (A \& \neg{}B)\big)\Big)$ : $$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|} \hline B\backslash A&1&0\\\hline 1&1\vee0\vee0=1&0\vee1\vee0=1\\\hline 0&0\vee0\vee1=1&0\vee0\vee0=0\\\hline \end{array}$$
and you can see the two logical statements are actually equivalent, that is, $$ A\vee B\Leftrightarrow\Big(\big(A \& B \big) \lor \big((\neg{}A \& B) \lor (A \& \neg{}B)\big)\Big). $$