Multinomial coefficient $=\dfrac{n!}{a_1!\cdot a_2!\cdots a_k!}$, where $n=a_1+a_2+\cdots+a_k$.
So my thoughts are there should be a minimum when the denominator goes to the largest.
I believe there is a maximum for the denominator from my basic knowledge and experience of inequity, like for $a+b=c$, the $\max(ab)$ is reached when $a=b$, but I don't know how to do with the situation here (factorial).
Can anyone give me some help?
Thanks
Edit: Well actually, I'm using this to help me solve a problem. The answers followed here makes me feel I am trying the problem in a wrong way. Here is the question, could you tell how to think it right?
Let n larger or equal than 2. We want to select as many subsets of $[n]$ as possible, without selecting two subsets so that one of them contains the other. Prove that we can always select at least $(2^n-1)/n$ Subsets.
Thanks again
The lower bound of the coefficient is $1$. This happens when $a_i=n$ for some $1\le i\le k$. Then, we have $a_j=0$ for all $j \ne i$.
It must be noted that here $a_j \ge 0$ for all $1\le j\le k$. Thus, no $a_j$ in the denominator can be greater than $n$.
It can be seen that $1$ must be the minimum this way: the multinomial coefficient is the number of ways of arranging $n$ objects where $a_1$ are of one kind, $a_2$ are of a second kind, and so on. As it is the number of ways, the value must always be a positive integer for $n\ge 0$. So, as it can take the value of $1$, it must be the minimum value.