I do not fully grasp the intuition of this. Is the reasoning behind the equality due to the fact that they're simply counting the combinations disregarding the order? For example, counting the arrangements of letters with duplicates, the multinomial coefficient cuts down the undistinguished arrangements due to the duplicates.
2026-02-22 20:37:45.1771792665
Why does the multinomial coefficient count the same numbers as the combination coefficient?
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