We can find a countable base for $\mathbf{R}^{n}$ using fact that $\mathbf{Q}$ is dense in the reals (example of proof by someone else is here: Proof that $\mathbf{R}^n$ has a countable base.).
We also have countable base for $\mathbf{Q}_{p}$ since the set of all balls is countable (Proposition 1.6 in this paper: https://www2.math.ethz.ch/education/bachelor/seminars/hs2011/p-adic/report5.pdf).
But $\mathbf{Q}$ is also dense in $\mathbf{Q}_{p}$, can we just use similar reasoning to the $\mathbf{R}^{n}$ to show that there is countable base for $\mathbf{Q}^{p}$, or is this not true? Thank you.
In technical terms:
That is
Indeed, let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and $Q\subseteq X$ a countable dense subset. Then $(X,d)$ has a countable base, consisting of the balls of rational radius around points in $Q$. $\square$
Also, the product of two (or finitely many) second-countable spaces is second-countable (by taking the obvious rectangles as base).