Is it true that for any real valued Borel measurable square integrable function $f$, ${\displaystyle\lim_{s\rightarrow 0}\int\limits_{\mathbb{R}}\left(f(t-s)-f(t)\right)^2\,dt=0}$ ? If yes, then how?
2026-04-25 21:58:21.1777154301
$\mathcal{L}_2$ continuity of translation
109 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in CALCULUS
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