For an $m \times n$ matrix $(a_{ij})$ of real numbers, we want to show that the following two conditions are equivalent:
1) $|\sum_{ij} a_{ij} x_i y_j | \leq 1$ for $x_i, y_j \in \{\pm 1\}$
2) $|\sum_{ij} a_{ij} x_i y_j| \leq \max |x_i| \max |y_j|$ for all numbers $x_i$, $y_j$.
Clearly, 2 implies 1. I would like to know why the reverse is true.
Let $S = \{(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}^m{\times\,}\mathbb{R}^n\mid x_i,y_j\in \{-1,1\},\;\text{for all}\;i,j\}$.
Let $D = \{(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}^m{\times\,}\mathbb{R}^n\mid x_i,y_j\in [-1,1],\;\text{for all}\;i,j\}$.
Let $f:\mathbb{R}^m{\times\,}\mathbb{R}^n\to \mathbb{R}$ be given by $$f(x,y)=\sum a_{ij}x_iy_j$$ for $1\le i \le m,\;1\le j \le n$.
Assume $|f(x,y)|\le 1$, for all $(x,y)\in S$.
For each each coordinate $v\in \{x_i\}\cup \{y_j\}$, regarding $v$ as unknown, with the other coordinates held fixed, $f$ is a linear polynomial in $v$. It follows that the maximum and minimum values of $f$ on $D$ can be realized at points of $S$.
Hence, $|f(x,y)|\le 1$, for all $(x,y)\in D$.
The desired result $$|f(x,y)|\le \max |x_i| \max |y_j|$$ for all $(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}^m{\times\,}\mathbb{R}^n$ follows by an appropriate scaling of $x$ and $y$.
Explicitly . . .
Let $(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}^m{\times\,}\mathbb{R}^n$.
Let $X=\max(|x_i|)$, and let $Y=\max(|y_j|)$.
We want to show $|f(x,y)|\le XY$.
If $X=0$ or $Y=0$, then $x=0$ or $y=0$, so $f(x,y)=0=XY$.
Next, assume $X,Y > 0$.
Then $\bigl({\large{\frac{x}{X}}},{\large{\frac{y}{Y}}}\bigr)\in D$, hence $$ |f(x,y)| = XY \left|f \bigl( {\small{\frac{x}{X}}},{\small{\frac{y}{Y}}} \bigr)\right| \le (XY)(1) =XY $$